[εις επαινον δοξης αυτου] 11/16/2006 02:42:48 PM

Yeah, I do agree that music communicates. And I'd even say that there are aspects of music that would communicate universally. On the other hand I think there are aspects of music that communicate subjectively based on the recepter. Music cannot be on the same level as language because it cannot be decoded as simply as language. Neither is authorial intent simply determined. It's an expression of emotion which is difficult to codify. I think to say there is always universality in expression is to oversimplify the issue, and worse to go beyond scripture in making moral judgments on it. Does that make sense? In theory, I like Aniol's view, but in actuality in light of the diversity of expression that exists, I don't think it holds up.

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Posted by Matthew LaPine to εις επαινον δοξης αυτου at 11/16/2006 02:42:48 PM